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CETP Exams Practice Questions

The focus of the practice questions is to help understand the purpose and intent of a question within a competency-based multiple-choice exam. More specifically, the plan is to guide the exam candidate towards the correct answer; to see what the questions look like on an exam; and how to work through the rationale for the correct answer.

Speech-Language Pathology Practice Test Items

Audiology Practice Test Items

Speech-Language Pathology Practice Test Items

Audiology Practice Test Items

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CETP Exams Practice Questions

Speech-Language Pathology Practice Test Items

Question 1: What would an informal assessment of Paul’s expressive communication involve?

Question 2: What should an assessment of Paul’s receptive language evaluate?

Question 3: In the event that Paul does not cooperate with standardized receptive language testing, what would be the best alternative?

Question 4: What should be considered when choosing words for initial vocabulary training?

Question 5: What does phonological awareness training facilitate?

Question 6: What is true of speech breathing when compared to life breathing?

Question 7: Which motor speech characteristic(s) would be expected in a patient with a cerebellar lesion?

Question 8: In Wernicke’s aphasia, where is the lesion commonly found?

Question 9: What is one of the main goals of Supported Conversation for Adults With Aphasia?

Question 10: What co-existing impairment are children with severe phonological disorders most likely to have?

Question 11: A parent disagrees that his 5 year-old child has severe language deficits, contrary to the results of a recent comprehensive formal assessment. What is this parent exhibiting?

Question 12: What type of dysarthria is characterized by hypophonia, monotonous voice, breathiness, short rushes of speech and imprecise consonants?

Question 13: What should be the S-LP’s short-term goal for a client who presents with hard glottal attacks?

Question 14: For which condition would an S-LP be most likely to consider a picture-based electronic communication system?

Question 15: Why is cognitive behaviour therapy thought to be helpful in the treatment of persons who stutter?

Question 16: For which type of swallowing impairment would the Mendelsohn manoeuver be used?

Question 17: What is the best measure of success for an intervention designed to establish correct production of a particular sound in conversation?

Question 18: General treatment goals for individuals with mild dysarthria include:

Question 19: What would be an appropriate goal for a school-age child with a word-finding disorder?

Question 20: What therapy approach is beneficial for individuals with global aphasia?

Question 21: What is considered best practice when obtaining informed consent for a client who speaks a different language than the S-LP?

Question 22: Jacob, age 6 months, has been recently fitted with hearing aids following a diagnosis of sensorineural hearing loss. Which factor is the most important in determining his prognosis for oral language development?

Question 23: An S-LP’s client, Rowena, is in the same kindergarten class as the S-LP’s daughter. At a birthday party, Rowena’s parent asks the S-LP about how Rowena’s therapy is progressing. How should the S-LP respond?

Question 25: Patty, an S-LP, has a friend who is receiving fluency treatment from Patty’s colleague in the same clinic. Her friend told Patty she thinks the therapy activities are “silly” and is considering withdrawing from treatment. What should Patty do to address her friend’s concerns?

Question 26: Jeremy is a school board S-LP and operates a private practice during the summer. What is the best way Jeremy could market his private practice to attract new clients?

Question 27: An S-LP in a rehabilitation centre wants to start an aphasia group to enhance individual S-LP treatment, but the manager is not supportive of group therapy. What should be the S-LP’s first course of action?

Question 28: To test cranial nerve V function, what could the S-LP ask the client to do?

Question 29: Rachel is a long-term care resident with identified thin liquid dysphagia. A nurse referred her to the S-LP for significant weight loss and dehydration. What is the first recommendation for the S-LP to make?

Question 30: For an individual with velopharyngeal dysfunction, which vowel sound would be perceived as most nasal?

Audiology Practice Test Items

Question 3: What is dosimetry used to determine?

Question 4: Tympanometry for a 7-year-old child reveals a flat tympanogram with an equivalent ear canal volume of 0.2 millitres (ml). What does this suggest?

Question 5: Immittance results within normal limits and absent acoustic reflexes would be indicative of which of the following?

Question 6: Which of the following descriptive statistical measures corresponds to the middle of a distribution?

Question 7: By what age should newborn hearing screening be completed?

Question 8: Hearing thresholds are collected using insert earphones. Based on these results, what is the most likely pathology?

Question 9: What language skill would be emerging in a typically developing 8-month-old?

Question 10: Aubrey is a 4-year-old child with autism spectrum disorder (ASD). She has tactile defensive behaviour and misophonia. How should the audiologist begin the evaluation?

Question 11: What is the effect of a low-pass filter with a 2000 Hz cut off?

Question 12: When performing real-ear measures (REM), an audiologist obtains a real-ear aided response (REAR) lower in the high frequencies than would have been expected; the REAR is meeting targets at other frequencies. Which of the following is most likely to cause this finding?

Question 13: Which procedure best evaluates the function of the saccule and the inferior vestibular nerve?

Question 14: How often should real-ear-to-coupler differences (RECDs) be repeated in young children to ensure optimal hearing aid benefit?

Question 15: The screening program at a local hospital reports that it correctly identified 95% of infants with hearing loss in the previous year. Which test characteristic does this refer to?

Question 16: Mr. Leblanc has new completely-in-the-canal (CIC) hearing aids. At his 4-week check-up he reports that the hearing aids are not staying in when he chews. What is the audiologist’s best next step?

Question 17: What is a small opening that allows cochlear perilymph to leak into the middle ear?

Question 18: Which of the following syndromes is most commonly associated with congenital hearing loss?

Question 19: Which area of the tympanic membrane is usually affected first by a cholesteatoma?

Question 20: When performing otoscopy, the audiologist observes bubbles behind the eardrum. What are the most likely results?

Question 21: What is the audiologist’s best next step in management of this client?

Question 22: Marc has a moderate bilateral hearing loss. He uses behind-the-ear (BTE) hearing aids with direct streaming capability from his mobile phone. He reports that he is struggling to hear the caller because he hears too much environmental noise. What is the audiologist’s best next step?

Question 27: What is the audiologist’s first step prior to taking an ear impression?

Question 28: An audiologist has new auditory brainstem response (ABR) equipment on trial. The manufacturer offers the audiologist a weekend pass to a local ski hill. What is the audiologist’s best response?

Question 29: An audiologist is conducting an auditory brainstem response (ABR) test. During test set-up, the audiologist determines that the impedances are all equally high. What is the audiologist’s best next step to bring down the impedances?

Question 30: Which one of the following is most appropriate to use for translation when providing services if the audiologist and client do not speak the same language?

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